Special Content

Volume-7, 19-25 May, 2018

UGC NET (JULY 2016) Question Paper-I

Q 1.     A is sister of B. F is daughter of G. C is mother of B. D is father of C. E is mother of D. A is related to D as
(1)        Grand daughter
(2)        Daughter
(3)        Daughter-in-law
(4)        Sister
Q 2.     In the series
            AB, EDC, FGHI, ....?...., OPQRST, the missing term is
(1)        JKLMN
(2)        JMKNL
(3)        NMLKJ
(4)        NMKLJ
Q3.      Amongthefollowing propositions two are related in such a way that one is the denial of the other. Which are those propositions ? Select the correct code :
Propositions :
(a)        All women are equal to men
(b)        Some women are equal to men
(c)        Some women are not equal to men
(d)        No women are equal to men
Codes :
(1)        (a) and (b)
(2)        (a) and (d)
(3)        (c) and (d)
(4)        (a) and (c)
Q 4.     If the proposition ‘All thieves are poor’ is false, which of the following propositions can be claimed certainly to be true ?
Propositions :
(1)        Some thieves are poor.
(2)        Some thieves are not poor.
(3)        No thief is poor.
(4)        No poor person is a thief.
Q 5.     Consider the following statement and select the correct code stating the nature of the argument involved in it :
            To suppose that the earth is the only populated world in the infinite space is as absurd as to assert that in an entire field of millet only one grain will grow.
(1)        Astronomical
(2)        Anthropological
(3)        Deductive
(4)        Analogical
Q 6. Select the code which is not correct about Venn diagram :
(1)        Venn diagram represents propositions as well as classes.
(2)        It can provide clear method of notation.
(3)        It can be either valid or invalid.
(4)        It can provide the direct method of testing the validity.
Q 7.     Select the code which is not correct in the context of deductive argument with two premises :
(1)        An argument with one true premise, one false premise and a false conclusion may be valid.
(2)        An argument with two true premises and a false conclusion may be valid.
(3)        An argument with one true premise, one false premise and a true conclusion may be valid.
(4)        An argument with two false premises and a false conclusion may be valid.
Q 8.     If the total expenditure of the two companies was Rs. 9 lakh in the year 2012 and the expenditure of A and B were in the ratio 2 : 1, then what was the income of the company A in that year ?
(1)        ` 9.2 lakh
(2)        ` 8.1 lakh
(3)        ` 7.2 lakh
(4)        ` 6.0 lakh
Q9. What is the average percentage profit earned by the company B ?
(1)        35%
(2)        42%
(3)        38%
(4)        40%
Q10.       Approximately what percentage of the total sample were aged 21-30 ?
(1)        31%
(2)        23%
(3)        25%
(4)        14%
Q11.    Approximately what percentage of the total sample indicates that Hip-Hop is their favourite style of music ?
(1)        6%
(2)        8%
(3)        14%
(4)        12%
Q12.    What percentage of respondents aged 31+ indicated a favourite style other than classical music ?
(1)        64%
(2)        60%
(3)        75%
(4)        50%
Q13.    The statement ‘‘the study, design, development, implementation, support or management of computer-based information systems, particularly software applications and computer Hardware’’ refers to
(1)        Information Technology (IT)
(2)        Information and Collaborative Technology (ICT)
(3)        Information and Data Technology (IDT)
(4)        Artificial Intelligence (AI)
Q14.    If the binary equivalent of the decimal number 48 is 110000, then the binary equivalent of the decimal number 51 is given by
(1)        110011
(2)        110010
(3)        110001
(4)        110100
Q15.    The process of copying files to a CD-ROM is known as
(1)        Burning
(2)        Zipping
(3)        Digitizing
(4)        Ripping
Q16.    An unsolicited e-mail message sent to many recipients at once  is a
(1)        Worm
(2)        Virus
(3)        Threat
(4)        Spam
Q17.    _________ is a type of memory circuitry that holds the computer’s start-up routine.
(1)        RIM (Read Initial Memory)
(2)        RAM (Random Access Memory)
(3)        ROM (Read Only Memory)
(4)        Cache Memory
Q18.    An ASCII is a character-encoding scheme that is employed by personal computers in order to represent various characters, numbers and control keys that the computer user selects on the keyboard. ASCII is an acronym for
(1)        American Standard Code for Information Interchange
(2)        American Standard Code for Intelligent Information
(3)        American Standard Code for Information Integrity
(4)        American Standard Code for Isolated Information
Q19. Identify the air pollutant in urban areas which irritates eyes and also respiratory tract of human beings.
(1)        Particulate matter
(2)        Oxides of nitrogen
(3)        Surface ozone
(4)        Carbon monoxide
Q20.    Which of the following is the largest source of water pollution in major rivers of India ?
(1)        Untreated sewage
(2)        Agriculture run-off
(3)        Unregulated small scale industries
(4)        Religious practices
Q21.    Sustainable development goals have specific targets to be achieved by
(1)        2022
(2)        2030
(3)        2040
(4)        2050
Q22.    Indian government’sfs target of producing power from biomass by the year 2022, is
(1)        50 MW
(2)        25 MW
(3)        15 MW
(4)        10 MW
Q23.    Assertion (A) : Conserving our soil resources is critical to human survival.
            Reason (R) : Soil is home to many micro-organisms and contains minerals.
Choose the correct code :
(1)        Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2)        Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3)        (A) is true and (R) is false.
(4)        (A) is false and (R) is true.
Q24.    World Meteorological Organi-sation’s (WMO) objective has been to reduce the number of deaths due to hydrometeoro-logical disasters over the decade 2010-2019 by (with reference to the decade 1994-2003)
(1)        25%
(2)        50%
(3)        75%
(4)        80%
Q25.    Which of the following core values among the institutions of higher education are promoted by the NAAC (National Assessment and Accreditation Council) ?
(a)        Contributing to national development.
(b)        Fostering global competencies among the students.
(c)        Inculcating a value system among students and teachers.
(d)        Promoting the optimum utilization of the infrastructure.
            Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(1)        (b), (c) and (d)
(2)        (a), (b) and (c)
(3)        (a), (c) and (d)
(4)        (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Q26.    The best way for providing value education is through
(1)        discussions on scriptural texts
(2)        lectures / discourses on values
(3)        seminars / symposia on values
(4)        mentoring / reflective sessions on values
Q27.    The National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) has been declared unconstitutional by
(1)        The Supreme Court of India
(2)        The High Court
(3)        The High Court and the Supreme Court both
(4)        The President of India
Q28. Which of the following statements about the Indian political system is/are correct ?
(a)        The President is both Head of the State and Head of the Government.
(b)        Parliament is Supreme.
(c)        The Supreme Court is the guardian of the Constitution.
(d)        The Directive Principles of State Policy are justiciable.
            Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1)        (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2)        (b), (c) and (d)
(3)        (b) and (c)
(4)        (c) only
Q29. Which of the following are the fundamental duties ?
(a)        To respect the National Flag.
(b)        To protect and improve the natural environment.
(c)        For a parent to provide opportunities for education to his/her child.
(d)        To protect monuments and places of national importance.
Select the correct answer from the codes given :
Codes :
(1)        (a), (b) and (c)
(2)        (a), (b) and (d)
(3)        (a), (c) and (d)
(4)        (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(Answer Key shall be published in the Next Issue)