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Special Content

volume-37,15-21 December 2018


Question Paper of General Ability, Intelligence and Professional Skills for Central Industrial Security Force Assistant Commandant (Executive Limited) Departmental Competitive Exam, 2018

Q1.         Which of the following agencies can carry out search of the aircraft during specific bomb threat call?

(a) Airlines security/Airlines engineers only

(b) Airlines security/Airlines engineer/BDDS/ASG/ DGCA

(c) Airlines security/Airlines engineer /BDDS/Dog squad

(d) Airlines security/Airlines engineer/BDDS only

Q2.         Who among the following is responsible for pre-flight anti-sabotage check of an aircraft?

(a)          ASG

(b)          Airlines security

(c)           BDDS

(d)          Crew of the airlines

Q3.         Who among the following is responsible for guarding the aircraft hangar?

(a)          Airport security

(b)          Airport operator

(c)           Aircraft operator

(d)          ASG

Q4.         First Aid Fire Extinguis-hers are known as

(a)          Fire tenders

(b)          Foam tenders

(c)           Portable fire extinguishers

(d)          DCP tenders

Q5.         Which of the following are the main components of an lED?

(a)          Weapons, explosives, dangerous articles, dange-rous substances

(b)          Ignition, incendiary material mechanism

(c)           Explosives, switch mech-anism and battery/power source

(d)          Explosives, detonator, switch mechanism and battery/power source

Q6.         Which one of the following is the first duty of a police officer at a scene of crime?

(a)          To preserve the scene of crime

(b)          Photograph the scene of crime

(c)           Start collecting physical evidence

(d)          Make a sketch of the scene of crime

Q7.         When was the CISF inducted at airports?

(a)          1999       (b) 2001

(c)           2002       (d) 2000

Q8.         Any book or newspaper or document can be forfeited and seized by an order of the State Government under Section 95 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, if the same contains any matter, the publication of which is punishable under Sections

(a)          124A, 122, 292 and 354A of the IPC

(b)          124A, 153A, 153B, 292, 293 and 295A of the IPC

(c)           124A, 153B, 509, 376 and 377 of the IPC

(d)          124A, 153A, 153B, 354 and 509 of the IPC

Q9.         If, during dispersal of an unlawful assembly, an army officer, comman-ded to disperse it, exceeds his power which had resulted into the death of four women and three children, that army officer can be prosecuted with the sanction of

(a)          his Commanding Officer

(b)          the District Magistrate

(c)           the Central Government

(d)          the concerned State Government

Q10. 'A' kills the hen of 'B'. The value of the hen is above two hundred fifty rupees. What is the offence committed by 'A'?

(a)          No offence under the IPC

(b)          Mischief under Section 429 of the IPC

(c)           Misappropriation of pro-perty

(d)          Trespass of the property of 'B'

Q11.       In which one of the following cases is the offence of criminal breach of trust not committed?

(a)          'A', the delivery boy of 'B' ('B' is an online retailer), does not deliver the package of mobile phone and uses it himself

(b)          A postman does not deliver the money order and misappropriates the money

(c)           'A' finds a ring near the shop of a jeweller and gives it to his wife

(d)          'A', an employee of the Employees' State Insur-ance Corporation, does not deposit the contribution of an employee and misa-ppropriates it

Q12. The question is whether 'A' stole the Laptop of 'B'. Which one of the following is not relevant as per the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

(a)          'A' knows how to operate the Laptop

(b)          'A' sold the same Laptop to his friend

(c)           Only 'A' was authorized to use his Laptop by using his finger impressions

(d)          'A' had the key of 'B's room

Q13. How much information received from an accused may be proved when the accused is in police custody?

(a)          All relevant information

(b)          His confession to commit the crime

(c)           Information distinctly rela-tes to the discovery of something

(d)          None, because he is in police custody

Q14.       As per the provisions of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, if a contract is contained in several letters, what must be proved?

(a)          Any one letter in which the contract is contained must be proved

(b)          Any letter which has the conclusion of the letter must be proved

(c)           All the letters in which the contract is contained must be proved

(d)          Only that letter of contract must be proved which has the disputed portion

Q15.       'A' is charged with travelling on a train without a ticket. As per the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, who among the following has to prove that he had a ticket?

(a)          'A' has to prove it

(b)          Guilt is always to be proved by the prosecution

(c)           The Court will decide it

(d)          It is proved the moment 'A' is caught without ticket

Q16. Notice with respect to any change which affects the conditions of service applicable to any workman in respect of any matter specified in the IVth Schedule of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, shall not be effected within

(a)          21 days (b) 60 days

(c)           90 days (d) 30 days

Q17. Who among the following is not an employee under Section 2 (F) of the Employees' Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952?

(a)          Any person employed for wages in any kind of work, manual or otherwise

(b)          Any person who gets his salary directly or indirectly from the employer

(c)           Any person employed by or through a contractor for his work

(d)          Any person engaged as an apprentice, not being an apprentice engaged under the Apprentices Act, 1961

Q18.       Under the Employees' Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provis-ions Act, 1952, which of the following is the appropriate Government for the employees of an establishment having branches in more than one State?

(a)          The State Government where the dispute has arisen

(b)          The Central Government

(c)           As decided by the Central Government

(d) The State Government, where the head office of the establishment is situated

Q19.       Which one of the following statements about layoff as stated in Chapter V B of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 is not correct?

(a)          This is applicable to industrial establishments employing not less than 100 workmen on an average per working day for the preceding 12 months.

(b)          Prior permission of the appropriate Government or specified authority is necessary before layoff.

(c)           The compensation for layoff is twice the compensation as in Chapter V A.

(d)          If the Government does not respond within 60 days of receiving the application for permission to layoff, the permission shall be deemed to have been granted.

Q20.  'A' cuts down a tree on 'B's land with the intention of dishonestly taking the tree out of 'B's possession without 'B's consent. What offence is committed by 'A'?

(a)          No offence until the tree is taken away

(b)          The offence of mischief

(c)           The offence of breach of trust

(d)          The offence of theft as soon as the tree is severed

Q21.       Under the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003, what is the maximum number of persons constituting the Central Vigilance Commission including the Chairperson?

(a)          Two       (b) Three

(c)           Four       (d) Five

Q23.  Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) The Industrial Tribunal constituted under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, exercises powers under the Employees' Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952.

(b) The members of the Industrial Tribunal hold office for a maximum period of five years.

(c) The Chairperson and members of the Industrial Tribunal cannot hold office after 65 years of age.

(d) The presiding officer of the Industrial Tribunal must be an independent person.

Q24.  In which one of the following cases had the Supreme Court directed an authority to provide drainage system for removal of a public nuisance under Section 133 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?

(a)          M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, 1986

(b)          Municipal Council, Ratlam v. Shri Vardhichand & Others, 1980

(c)           M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath, 2000

(d)          Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action v. Union of India, 1996

Q25.       Under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, a witness summoned by a Court of Law to produce a document which is in his possession has to do which one of the following?

(a)          Shall bring it to the Court notwithstanding any objection

(b)          May refuse to bring it in the interest of national security

(c)           May refuse to bring it on the ground of confidenti-ality

(d)          Shall produce before the Court only if there is no objection

Q25. 'A' was at work with a hatchet with full prec-autions. While working, the head of the hatchet flies off and kills a man who was standing nearby. 'A' has committed no crime under which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860?

(a)          Section 80

(b)          Section 81

(c)           Section 86

(d)          Section 89

Q26.       Which one of the following offences under the Indian Penal Code, 1860, is cognizable and non-bailable?

(a)          Sedition

(b)          Joining an unlawful assembly armed with a gun

(c)           Rioting with a deadly weapon

(d)          Bribery

Q27. 'A' with the intention of murdering 'Z', instigates 'B', a child under seven years of age, to do an act which causes 'Z's death. 'B' in consequence of the abetment, does the act in the absence of 'A' and thereby causes 'Z's death. Here 'A' is liable under which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860?

(a)          Section 109

(b)          Section 115

(c)           Section 120

(d)          Section 302

Q28.       The term 'workman' under the Workmen's Compensation Act, 1923, includes who among the following persons?

(a)          A person whose employment is of a casual nature

(b)          A person employed as a personal cook by the Managing Director of a company

(c)           A person employed for repairing an article in any premises wherein 15 persons are employed

(d)          The Captain of an aircraft

Q29.       The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, does not expressly provide for which one of the following?

(a)          Identification of an arrested person

(b)          Detention of an arrested person beyond 24 hours with an order of the Magistrate

(c)           Health of an arrested person

(d)          Bail to a person arrested under Preventive Detention Law