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Special Content

volume -4, 27 April - 3 May 2019

Union Public Service Commission

Combined Defence Services Exam (I) 2018

General knowledge

Q1.         Consider the following statements about Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP)

  1. ITBP was raised in 1962.
  2. ITBP is basically a mountain trained force.
  3. ITBP replaced Assam Rifles in Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh in 2004-2005 for border guarding duty.
  4. ITBP presently has 52 service battalions.

                Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)          1, 2 and 4 only

(b)          3 and 4 only

(c)           1, 2, 3 and 4

(d)          1, 2 and 3 only

Q2.         Which one of the following is not an International Human Rights Treaty?

(a)          International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights

(b)          Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women

(c)           Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities

(d)          Declaration on the Right to Development

Q3.         In the context of elections in India, which one of the following is the correct full form of VVPAT?

(a)          Voter Verifiable Poll Audit Trail

(b)          Voter Verifying Paper Audit Trail

(c)           Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail

(d)          Voter Verifiable Paper Account Trail

Q4.         Which one of the following is not an objective of the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY)?

(a)          To achieve convergence of investment in irrigation at the field level

(b)          To expand cultivable area under irrigation

(c)           To improve on-farm water use efficiency to reduce wastage of water

(d)          To protect farmers against crop failure due to natural calamities

Q5.         Which one of the following statements about Niryat Bandhu Scheme' is correct?

(a)          It is a scheme for mentoring first generation entrepreneurs.

(b)          It is a scheme for crop protection.

(c)           It is a scheme for the vulnerable section of the society.

(d)          It is a scheme for monitoring rural poor.

Q6.         Which one of the following statements about the Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY) is not correct?

(a)          It is a placement-linked skill training programme exclusively for rural girls.

(b)          It aims to convert India's demographic surplus into a demographic dividend.

(c)           The scheme aims to benefit more than 55 million poor rural folk.

(d)          It is a generational poverty alleviation programme.

Q7.         Where is Hambantota Port located?

(a)          Iran        (b) Sri Lanka

(c)           Japan    (d) Pakistan

Q8.         The projects under Coastal Berth Scheme of the flagship Sagarmala Programme are distributed over how many States?

(a)          Eight      (b) Ten

(c)           Twelve                 (d) Fourteen

Q9.         Which one of the following statements about the National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change is not correct?

(a)          The fund is meant to assist national and State level activities to meet the cost of adaptation measures.

(b)          This scheme has been taken as a Central Sector Scheme.

(c)           The Indian Council of Agricultural Research is the national implementing entity for the fund.

(d)          The scheme has been in force since 2015-16.

Q10.       `SAMPRITI-2017' is a joint military exercise between armed forces of India and

(a)          Bhutan                 (b) Bangladesh

(c)           Pakistan               (d) Myanmar

Q11.       The judgement of the Supreme Court of India in the Vishakha Case pertains to

(a)          sexual harassment in the work-place

(b)          Sati         (c) dowry death

(d)          rape

Q12.       The first BRICS Summit, after the inclusion of South Africa, was held at

(a)          Brasilia                     (b) Sanya

(c)           Yekaterinburg (d) Durban

Q13.       Who deciphered the Brahmi and Kharoshthi scripts?

(a)          Piyadassi

(b)          Colin Mackenzie

(c)           Alexander Cunningham

(d)          James Prinsep

Q14.       Which of the following is/are the feature(s) of the Brahmadeya Grants during c 600-1200 AD?

  1. Their creation meant a renunciation of actual or potential sources of revenue by the State.
  2. These grants could vary from a small plot to several villages.
  3. Most grants were made in unsettled areas.

                Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a)          1 only    (b) 2 and 3 only

(c)           1 and 2 only

(d)          1, 2 and 3

Q15.       Who is the author of Manimekalai?

(a)          Kovalan                (b) Sathanar

(c)           llango Adigal

(d)          Tirutakkatevar

Q16.       Which one of the following statements about the Elephanta Island is correct?

(a)          It was given its name by the British after a large elephant structure located there.

(b)          It contains one large cave.

(c)           It is well-known for a spectacular carving of Vishnu described in the Vishnudharmottara Purana.

(d)          It is associated with the Pashupata sect.

Q17.       Which of the following statements about Sir Syed Ahmad Khan is/are correct?

  1. He argued that India was a federation of ethnic communities based on common descent.
  2. His philosophy was very similar to that of the Indian National Congress.
  3. He imagined India as a Nation State based on individual citizen's rights.
  4. The curriculum at the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College blended Muslim theology and European empiricism.

                Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a)          1 only    (b) 2 and 3

(c)           3 only    (d) 1 and 4

Q18.       Consider the following statements about impact of tax :

  1. A tax is shifted forward to consumers if the demand is inelastic relative to supply.
  2. A tax is shifted backward to producers if the supply is relatively more inelastic than demand.

                Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)          1 only    (b) 2 only

(c)           Both 1 and 2

(d)          Neither 1 nor 2

Q19.       According to the law of diminishing marginal utility, as the amount of a good consumed increases, the marginal utility of that good tends to

(a)          improve               (b) diminish

(c)           remain constant

(d)          first diminish and then improve